Parlay?

The following situation occurred at the dice table and led to a dispute. The player threw in two 5 dollar chips to the stickman and yelled hi/lo. The stickman then placed the two chips on the line separating the two boxes on the layout (1-1) and (6-6). The shooter then rolled a 12. The bettor then said 'parlay!'.
The dice were passed to the shooter and another 12 was rolled.
The questions are :
1) Does the placement of the bet on the line separating the 2 and 12 boxes have the same meaning as one chip in each box? and
2) The roll coming too fast for clarification, what was parlayed - the hi/lo or the 12?

1. I assume it means the bet is split evenly between the two boxes. In this case $2.50 on each the 2 and 12.
2. I'm not an expert on the procedure in craps but I would assume he meant to do the same thing again. In other words, split what he won from the first roll between the 2 and 12.

So, assuming the hard hops pay 30 for 1, he should have $2.50*30*1/2*30 = $1125.

What was in dispute?

I agree with the Wizard, except he appears to have missed that there were two $5 chips thrown in initially, so double the figures.

The dispute was - The house wanted to parlay the hi/lo so that the payout would be 1/2. Paying out only 2.50*30*1/2*30*1/2 as in your example.

Now I'm confused. Both the Wizard and I interpreted the wager as if the hi/low were parlayed. If the initial amount wagered had been $5, rather than the two $5 chips mentioned in the first post and my earlier comment, then $2.50 would have lost on the first roll (the 2) and the other $2.50 (the 12) would have been paid at 30 for 1 (assumed) giving a total of $2.50*30 available to be parlayed. If that is parlayed on the hi/low and the next roll is again 12, then the low wager would lose ($2.50*30*1/2) and the hi wager would win at 30 for 1 giving a total remaining of $2.50*30*1/2*30=$1,125 as the Wizard originally said. If the initial amount of the wager had been the two $5 chips originally mentioned, then the final amount would be $5*30*1/2*30=$2,250.

I don't see where the second 1/2 in your payout calculation comes from.

As to the confusion between the player and the stick man, if the player initially called for a hi/low but wanted to parlay on just the hi, then he/she needed to be more explicit as to what was wanted.

The usual assumption (by the house), when a player has multiple proposition wagers and hits on one of them, is that all of the previous wagers are to be kept in play, replacing the losing ones with part of the payout from the winner. If you only wish to keep the winning prop bet in play, you need to ask that the others come down on the payout. Extending this to the case of a parlay of a hi/low, I suspect every player would expect the money to be parlayed on hi/low. I would say the exception would be either a player who doesn't really understand how craps is played or a play who is trying to scam the house.

You said, "The house wanted to parlay the hi/lo...." Did the house concede and payout as if the full parlay had been on the high? Either they were being very generous or the scam worked.

So the question is:
Does "parlay" mean take my winnings and press the bet which just won or does it mean take the winnings and press the Bet that I had made.

Player claims: Hi Lo ... means make two bets Deuce and Twelve. And that "parlay" then means to press the bet that won, the Twelve, since the Deuce bet is now down.

House claims: Hi Lo... means make two bets Deuce and Twelve. And that "parlay" then means to put half the winnings on the Deuce and half the winnings on the Twelve.

Certainly there was a lack of explicit and unambiguous communication. A player can only press an existing bet and parlay means to take ALL the winnings to press the bet irrespective of normal betting units for a press.

So it goes to common usage in the industry... but what is that?

deleted post...

Thank you FS - better explained

Quote: docsjs

Thank you FS - better explained

Probably not "better" just longer winded.

The "hi lo" is shorthand for two separate bets. Dealers don't like "string bettors" and prefer a short hand notation anyway. Its "C and E" not Craps and Eleven. Since they are one-roll hop bets they do not survive: they either each go down or one goes down and the other hits. The one that hits is paid off but left standing unless contrary instructions are given such as Down or Press it. Press without any amount called out is Press by the minimum unit. Press by a specified amount means Press by the stated amount. Parlay means to press by All the winnings irrespective of units or breakage. So I would say that a dealer can only press a bet that is presently standing. And that he therefore can only press to the max the bet that is standing.

Yet a bet exists.. World Bet?? that is a way of making four simultaneous bets and often indicating which one is "heavy" in that any breakage then goes to the "heavy" one. Any "pressing" means to each of the four bets again.

Gad, I just don't know. I'd like to think this issue has arisen and been settled or else too many craps games would be delayed by needless disputes.

And dice dealers out there?????

After the first midnight hit, the dice should not have been released to the shooter until ALL the prop debts had been paid out and finalized.

Presumably the stick had paid off the $150 winnings on the hit, heard the instruction to "parlay," and placed the full winnings on the line between 1-1 and 6-6; if so, it is clear: hi / lo.

The player is charged with being responsible for making certain that the dealer set up the bet the way he wants it: he saw the stack on the line, why didn't he yell out "no, no, put it ALL on midnight?"

Could be just another douchebag "taking a shot" against the casino.