Riva
Riva
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February 17th, 2014 at 10:15:39 AM permalink
In another thread, we had a lively conversation surrounding the house taking ties in BJ played at charitable games. In that thread, someone posted this link to the effect of house edge based on variations or the rules.

https://wizardofodds.com/games/blackjack/rule-variations/

I have a question as it relates to the percentages, plus and minus, within this table.

For example, the first variance listed on the chart is paying 2:1 on BJ versus 3:2 . It states that by doing this, it has a +2.27% net effect for the player. Does that mean that, if no other variance was incorporated, that the overall house edge is +2.27% for the player? Or, that the player's chances of winning have merely increased by 2.27%?
MathExtremist
MathExtremist
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February 17th, 2014 at 10:32:05 AM permalink
It's the edge, not the probability. The probability of a natural is independent of how much it pays.
"In my own case, when it seemed to me after a long illness that death was close at hand, I found no little solace in playing constantly at dice." -- Girolamo Cardano, 1563
beachbumbabs
beachbumbabs
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February 17th, 2014 at 10:33:50 AM permalink
Quote: Riva

In another thread, we had a lively conversation surrounding the house taking ties in BJ played at charitable games. In that thread, someone posted this link to the effect of house edge based on variations or the rules.

https://wizardofodds.com/games/blackjack/rule-variations/

I have a question as it relates to the percentages, plus and minus, within this table.

For example, the first variance listed on the chart is paying 2:1 on BJ versus 3:2 . It states that by doing this, it has a +2.27% net effect for the player. Does that mean that, if no other variance was incorporated, that the overall house edge is +2.27% for the player? Or, that the player's chances of winning have merely increased by 2.27%?



My understanding is that the chart separates out each choice as an independent variable, and is like a chinese menu; pick one from group A, one from group B, and so on. So Group A: BJ pays 6:5 does one thing, BJ 3:2 does another, BJ 2:1 a third, BJ 7:5 a fourth. In the lead-in paragraph, Wiz does not mention this, but standard BJ is 3:2 on wins, so that's the +0.00 point. In isolation, BJ 2:1 pays +2.27% better for the player than that. Using the lead-in paragraph as the 0.00 point rules, the table goes from that standard with + or - EV from the POV of the player.
If the House lost every hand, they wouldn't deal the game.
kubikulann
kubikulann
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February 18th, 2014 at 7:21:02 AM permalink
Quote: Riva

For example, the first variance listed on the chart is paying 2:1 on BJ versus 3:2 . It states that by doing this, it has a +2.27% net effect for the player. Does that mean that, if no other variance was incorporated, that the overall house edge is +2.27% for the player?
No. The HE switches from what it was (say X) to X+0.0227.

Or, that the player's chances of winning have merely increased by 2.27%?
No. HE is an expectation (a mean value), not a probability.

Reperiet qui quaesiverit
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