Mission146
Mission146
Joined: May 15, 2012
  • Threads: 119
  • Posts: 11977
July 3rd, 2012 at 9:23:57 PM permalink
Quote: behronlee15

Perhaps I should answer my own question.

On '37' the probability of winning was 1:40.16, therefore,
if the payout is 35 units for a win on 37, than,
(40.16-35) / (40.16+1) = 5.16 / 41.16 = 12.54% house edge
AND
if the payout is 40 units for a win on 37, than,
(40.16-40) / (40.16+1) = .16 / 41.16 = .388% hourse edge

On '39' the probability of winning was 1:42.60, therefore,
if the payout is 35 units for a win on 39, than,
(42.6-35) / (42.6+1) = 7.6 / 43.6 = 17.42% house edge
AND
if the payout is 40 units for a win on 39, than,
(42.6 - 40) / (42.6+1) = 2.6 / 43.6 = 5.96% house edge

IS THIS CORRECT?



Nice work!!!

Don't worry, I've always known what the concept of an advantage play was, but never would have abbreviated it, "AP," nor have taken the abbreviation to mean anything besides Associated Press until stopping here.
Vultures can't be choosers.
biggins
biggins
Joined: Aug 17, 2011
  • Threads: 2
  • Posts: 35
June 11th, 2013 at 2:45:49 PM permalink
wow! now that's a weird roulette question.


Quote: Mission146

Nice work!!!

Don't worry, I've always known what the concept of an advantage play was, but never would have abbreviated it, "AP," nor have taken the abbreviation to mean anything besides Associated Press until stopping here.


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